Author Thread: John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
God_is_my_Father

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John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
Posted : 28 Aug, 2016 06:37 PM

This is the declension of the noun "Lord", in the Greek language.

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Nominative kurios Lord singular kurioi plural Lords

Genitive kuriou of the Lord singular kuriwn of Lords

Dative kuriw to or for the Lord singular kuriois to or for the Lords

Accusative kurion Lord singular kurious Lords

Vocative kurie Lord singular kurioi Lords

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Nominative - Subject of the sentence

Genitive - Description Quality Possession Separation

Dative - Personal Interest Location, Indirect Object

Accusative - Extension Direct Object

Vocative - Direct Address



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And this is the declension of the noun "God" in the Greek language.

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Nominative theos God singular theoi Gods plural

Genitive theou of God singular theon of Gods plural

Dative theo to or for God singular theis to or for Gods plural

Accusative theon God singular theous God

Vocative theos or thee God singular theoi Gods



John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and the Word was God"

En arxe en o logos, kai o logos en pros ton theon, kai theos en o logo. (Literally, and God was the Word.)

As you can see from the above, the root word for God, "the", (th)eta (e)psilon, has two different endings in John 1:1, Theos, and Theon. The different endings account for their position in the sentence. This is not talking about 2 different people, nor two different Gods.

If I say, "The Lord saw Spot". "Lord" is the subject of the sentence.

If I say, "Spot saw the Lord". "Lord now gets a different ending in the Greek to show a different location in the sentence. It does not mean I'm talking about a different Lord.

If I say, "Spot saw the cat run after the Lord", I have another ending.



From Mare's "Mastering New Testament Greek" 1977, page 8-9

"Greek nouns used with the definite article, o, n, to (masculine, feminine and neuter) are called articular and are to be translated as "the....," e.g., "the man" or "the brother," etc.

----> *** Greek does not have an indefinite article like the English "a" or "an". When the Greek nouns do not have the definite article they are NORMALLY to be translated with the English indefinite article; e.g., "a man" or "an apple". HOWEVER, in the case of PROPER NOUNS, even when they are anarthrous (i.e., without the article) THEY ARE DEFINITE BY NATURE and can be translated with the English article "the"; e.g., kurios, the Lord; Theos, God, or The God." ***<----

This disproves the false notion that in John 1:1 that Theos is not the God. The omincron sigma ending simply denotes a different position in the sentence, and a difference voice for Theos as compared to the omicron nu voice for Theon. In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (Theon) and God - (God need no definite article because of the above stated rule, but as a PROPER NOUN, definite, The God) (Theos) was the Word.



"En arxe en o logos, kai o logos en pros ton Theon, kai Theos en o logos" John 1:1

When you see Theos, God is the subject of the sentence. When you see Theon, God is the direct object of the sentence. You know this because of the ending.



(trust me, the letters look much different in Greek lettering and some have breathing marks and accents above them)

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ADAM7777

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John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
Posted : 29 Aug, 2016 02:05 AM

I know some RULES on Greek grammar.... Where is the wise, where is the Greek wisdom, the Greek world wisdom is made foolish, the foolishness of preaching exposes them without the power of God.





1 Corinthians 1:20 Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of this world?

21 For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.

22 For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:

23 But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness;

24 But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God.



There is simplicity in Christ, because God has not called the mighty and wise in this world, God calls the basic people, and the most lowest simple ones, so lets put all back to Gods way.



In the beginning was the word, because Christ although humbled to be a Son, is the ONE, to receive the name above every name in HEAVEN AND IN EARTH. Christ is the life, that was not possible to be held in death. Christ the word of life was manifested, for this world to see, as Christ is THAT eternal life, and of course there is not two, to see the Father is to see the Son who sit on one throne serving HIM..



John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.



1 John 1:1 That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;

2 (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)

3 That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.



John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?



Philippians 2:10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;



Acts 2:24 Whom God hath raised up, having loosed the pains of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it.



Revelation 22:3 And there shall be no more curse: but the throne of God and of the Lamb shall be in it; and his servants shall serve him:



Luke 16:13 No servant can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon.



Colossians 3:24 Knowing that of the Lord ye shall receive the reward of the inheritance: for ye serve the Lord Christ.



Revelation 7:15 Therefore are they before the throne of God, and serve him day and night in his temple: and he that sitteth on the throne shall dwell among them.

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John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
Posted : 30 Aug, 2016 04:50 PM

You 2 guys, with all of the Scriptures copied and pasted. both of you seem to eisegesis instead of exegesis.

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John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
Posted : 30 Aug, 2016 11:59 PM

Definition of eisegesis

plural eisegesesplay --

: the interpretation of a text (as of the Bible) by reading into it one's own ideas,



Definition of exegesis

plural exegesesplay --

: exposition, explanation; especially : an explanation or critical interpretation of a text







Theological scholars have long been preoccupied with interpreting the meanings of various passages in the Bible. In fact, because of the sacred status of the Bible in both Judaism and Christianity, biblical interpretation has played a crucial role in both of those religions throughout their histories. English speakers have used the word exegesis - a descendant of the Greek term exegeisthai, meaning "to explain" or "to interpret" - to refer to explanations of Scripture since the early 17th century. Nowadays, however, academic writers interpret all sorts of texts, and "exegesis" is no longer associated mainly with the Bible.





For people like me who don't know what those words mean.



I can't say that I am not guilty of doing eisegesis myself though.........

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John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
Posted : 31 Aug, 2016 12:09 AM

Godismyfather thank you for the explanation of Greek grammar.

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ADAM7777

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John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
Posted : 31 Aug, 2016 01:33 AM

The word of God reveals the thoughts and intentions of the heart of a person. Right words have great force behind them, as light excels darkness, and to speak the right words at the right time is a joyful thing....



Hebrews 4:12 For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.



Job 6:25 How forcible are right words! but what doth your arguing reprove?



Ecclesiastes 2:13 Then I saw that wisdom excelleth folly, as far as light excelleth darkness.



Proverbs 15:23 A man hath joy by the answer of his mouth: and a word spoken in due season, how good is it!







What purpose is it of a person to show his disapproval of Greek grammar being dismissed, and to say you give only your own ideas on Gods word ? The purpose is his own ideas are not Gods word at all, and his own judgement returns to himself, as God says judge not or you will be judged. Envy is the cause, the chief priests were grieved that the apostles taught the people, in this end time they are full of envy, and envy is the rottenness of their bones. That is as the scripture says exactly, because we do not need to envy people who never speak Gods word with power...





Luke 4:32 And they were astonished at his doctrine: for his word was with power.



1 Corinthians 4:20 For the kingdom of God is not in word, but in power.







Mark 15:10 For he knew that the chief priests had delivered him for envy.



Acts 4:1 And as they spake unto the people, the priests, and the captain of the temple, and the Sadducees, came upon them,

2 Being grieved that they taught the people, and preached through Jesus the resurrection from the dead.



Romans 1:29 Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers,



Proverbs 14:30 A sound heart is the life of the flesh: but envy the rottenness of the bones.

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John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
Posted : 31 Aug, 2016 03:24 AM

Hmm... Let me put it this way,



I agree with somethings that Godismyfather, gracenotworksaves and what you have said Adam7777, but I also disagree on somethings with all 3 of you. Some I agree with more than others, but that's beside the point.



When judgement day comes and I stand before God, none of you will be there standing right next to me. And I won't be standing next too any of you either.



And doesn't it say(I think Paul said it but I am not sure) that we have to work out our OWN salvation in fear and trembling. Of course God puts people there to help in a time of need, but no matter what anyone says or how they view Scriptures won't put me(or anyone for that matter) in heaven.



I firmly believe that the KJV is the closest we can get too God's true word in English. And I also believe that God is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow, so His word will be what he intended it to be, so for anyone to say that man has fully corrupted all the translations is almost blasphemy against who God is. Just like how the Bible is written by men inspired by God, it would be the same with translations.

If not then even the pure in heart towards God to this point are going to the lake of fire because of impure translation. And don't forget all the true believers have passed away only knowing the English translations, they would be there also. God would not over look or be limited by translation.



In a way a person saying that is condemning people, which only God can do~



Be that as it may, the English language does have a problem with lumping multiple words from other languages into one word, and has words that don't have equivalent/existing words in other languages. So learning/having a strongs concordance so you can read the Hebrew and Greek meanings behind the KJV is a good thing. It helps a believer understand better what type of meaning is behind it.



But I don't believe that it would cause someone to miss heaven for not having it. If it says that in the Bible please do enlighten me...

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ADAM7777

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John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
Posted : 31 Aug, 2016 05:49 AM

Correct, judgement day means we all stand alone. That means we have the chance to stand together only now and before that last judgement. We also cant agree on things with everybody, light has no communion with darkness, 2 Corinthians 6:14, so we either make the tree good or make it corrupt, as we are known by our fruit. Matthew 12:33. Part of having the Love of God means you do all for your brothers edification.2 Corinthians 12:19. If you see someone is in the fire you pull them out..Jude 1:23 And others save with fear, pulling them out of the fire; hating even the garment spotted by the flesh. We are beseeched to have the same mind, perfectly joined together speaking the same thing, 1 Corinthians 1:10.





Having anything at all that can change our opinion is bad, evil communications corrupt good manners, and we are told to not be deceived about this. 1 Corinthians 15:33. The English language may have things that take away from another language, and then can return more to another language. For people who learn English they learn to adapt. It is no problem in faith to know the Lord both intended English to be the Western world communication of the Lords Holy word, and how the Lord made it adaptable, to fully contain the Lords whole meaning, so we are behind in not behind in any gift. The Lord gave us His grace, all is provided for us as a Shepherd provides all for His sheep.



1 Corinthians 1:4 I thank my God always on your behalf, for the grace of God which is given you by Jesus Christ;

5 That in every thing ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge;

6 Even as the testimony of Christ was confirmed in you:

7 So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ:



If a person wishes to believe the scriptures in all this world are either corrupt, or have things missing, they are free to do so. But the higher truth is to love in deed and truth, not in tongue and word, trusting the Lord enough to lose our lives, means we have no doubt of Him, and know He places His whole self inside of us, and really nothing is missing at all.

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God_is_my_Father

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John 1:1 and the rules of Greek Grammar.
Posted : 30 Oct, 2016 10:58 AM

You said, "You 2 guys, with all of the Scriptures copied and pasted. both of you seem to eisegesis instead of exegesis."

If I copied anything in my original post, it would have been John 1:1, and nothing else. I doubt I copied and pasted that, as I know it too well to waste time looking it up, and blocking, switching pages again, and copying it back to this page. That would have taken much longer than simply typing it out, as I did the rest of the post. This I did, letter by letter, word by word, sentence by sentence. I had to hand type the Greek letters without the accents to make it readable. The rules on grammar are from my literal physical text book, and I have no means to make my book appear on print with the limitations of this website. No, no block and copy in my o.p. Not sure why it would make a difference as the truth of the matter would still be the same.

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