Grace or Law - Why does the law exist then? Is it is any way applicable for those who are under grace?
Posted : 20 Apr, 2009 02:49 PM
Why does the law exist then? Is it in any way necessary or applicable for those who are under grace?
So now that we have determined that it is not possible for someone to live both under grace and under the law, we have some new questions that present themselves. Does the fact that we cannot live under both grace and law imply that the law is in any way bad or evil? Also we would have to ask ourselves what the purpose of the law is then � if we don�t live according to the law, why does it even exist? The second part of that question would then be is the law in ANY WAY necessary or applicable for those who are under grace? I am going to attempt to answer both of those questions through scripture.
Let�s look at the first part of this. Does the fact that grace and law cannot co-exist mean that the law is evil then? Paul addresses this, among other things in Romans 7.
What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, �You shall not covet.� But sin, taking opportunity by the commandment, produced in me all manner of evil desire. For apart from the law sin was dead. I was alive once without the law, but when the commandment came, sin revived and I died. And the commandment, which was to bring life, I found to bring death. For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it killed me. Therefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy and just and good. Has then what is good become death to me? Certainly not! But sin, that it might appear sin, was producing death in me through what is good, so that sin through the commandment might become exceedingly sinful. For we know that the law is spiritual, but I am carnal, sold under sin. For what I am doing, I do not understand. For what I will to do, that I do not practice; but what I hate, that I do. If then, I do what I will not to do, I agree with the law that it is good. But now, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me. For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh) nothing good dwells; for to will is present with me, but how to perform what is good I do not find. For the good that I will to do, I do not do; but the evil I will not to do, that I practice. Now if I do what I will not to do, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me.� Romans 7:7-20
So we can see here that Paul clearly says that the law is in no way evil. �Therefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy and just and good.� I don�t know about you, but to me that is pretty straight-forward and doesn�t leave much room for debate. The law is holy, just and good. Paul then begins to answer our second question, why does the law exist then? He says that he would not have known sin except through the law. He also says in Romans 3, �Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin.� Romans 3:20. That seems pretty straightforward to me. In both of these scriptures Paul is saying that the purpose of the Law is to make us aware of our sin, which in turn makes us realize that we cannot achieve righteousness through our own efforts � �For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God� Romans 3:23. Every single one of us has sinned and the Law is what makes us aware of our sin, and our need for God�s grace. So then, what about the person who has already realized their need for God�s grace? Do they still need the law? Let�s look at some more passages where Paul talks about this issue, and also our next question about whether or not the law is in any way necessary or applicable for those who are under grace. Paul addresses Timothy on what would appear to be this very subject, and judging from what it is that Paul has to say, it would seem that Timothy had been asking some questions about the law, and its purpose for those who have been saved by grace.
But we know that the law is good if one uses it lawfully, knowing this: that the law is not made for a righteous person, but for the lawless and insubordinate, for the ungodly and for sinners, for the unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, for fornicators, for sodomites, for kidnappers, for liars, for perjurers, and if there is any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine, according to the glorious gospel of the blessed God which was committed to my trust.� 1 Timothy 1:8-11
I�m not going to say a lot about this passage, because it is pretty self-explanatory I believe, but I just want to highlight a couple of things. First off, Paul re-affirms that the law is good! Now that may seem contradictory to some of you � well let me assure you that it is NOT. By taking a look at the rest of the passage, we can see exactly that. Paul says that the law is good IF ONE USES IT LAWFULLY. One of the meanings of lawfully is properly, or in other words, as it was intended. So Paul is saying that the law is good � if used as it was intended! That then begs the question of how was it intended? We saw in Romans 3 and 7 that the law was intended to make people aware of their sin, and thus their need for grace. We also see here in this passage Paul states very clearly that the law was not made for a righteous person, but for the lawless and insubordinate, and he goes on to list all the types of people that the law WAS made for. The key that I want to draw out of this passage is who the law was NOT made for � the righteous person! Who is that righteous person? Let�s look again to the Bible for our answers.
For they, being ignorant of God�s righteousness, and seeking to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted to the righteousness of God. For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes. �For Moses writes about the righteousness which is of the law, �The man who does those things shall live by them.� But the righteousness of faith speaks in this way, �Do not say in your heart, �Who will ascend into heaven?�� (that is, to bring Christ down from above) or, ��Who will descend into the abyss?�� (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead). But what does it say? �The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart� (that is, the word of faith which we preach): that if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. Romans 10:3-10
Now then, we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God were pleading through us: we implore you on Christ�s behalf, be reconciled to God. For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him. 2 Corinthians 5:20-21
But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. Romans 3:20-22
But you have not so learned Christ, if indeed you have heard Him and have been taught by Him, as the truth is in Jesus: that you put off, concerning your former conduct, the old man which grows corrupt according to the deceitful lusts, and be renewed in the spirit of your mind, and that you put on the new man which was created according to God, in true righteousness and holiness. Ephesians 4:20-24
Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law. Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also, since there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith. Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law. Romans 3:27-31
Paul says something very interesting in this last passage, Romans 3:27-31. While in the beginning of it he confirms our belief that justification, and thus righteousness comes not through the deeds of the law, but instead through faith he says something that would appear to be contradictory in verse 31. He asks then, if as a result of the fact that we are justified through faith the law has become void. He goes on to answer his own question by saying certainly not, and that we actually establish the law through faith. How does that work? Let�s break it down. The law defines righteousness, and makes us realize that we can never achieve it without the help of God. Also, we know that we are saved by grace through faith and thus declared righteous in the eyes of God. Paul also says in Titus 2 that grace teaches us to LIVE righteously and soberly, according to the ways of God. Therefore, when we realize that we cannot become righteous through our own efforts, and accept the grace of God with makes us righteous in his eyes, and then allow that grace to teach us to LIVE righteously as well, is the law not then fulfilled/established? It�s requirements have been met � realization of the need, and subsequent fulfillment of that need and the required righteousness through Jesus.
In all of these passages, we see very clearly that as followers of Christ, we have been declared righteous before God through Him. So going to back to our question of who are those righteous people that Paul was talking about, we can conclude that that would be believers in Christ � those who are living under grace! I also want to point out something very interesting that Paul says in the beginning of the passage from Romans 10 - �for Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.� - I don�t know about you, but this says to me that righteousness comes to those who believe in Christ, through (or as a result of) the fact that the law has been abolished, which again is further evidence in favor of the fact that the law is no longer necessary or applicable for those under grace. So, we see in Timothy that the law was NOT made for righteous people and we see in these passages from Romans, Corinthians and Ephesians that people who are followers of Christ are considered righteous people in the eyes of God, which says to me that the law is not for those who are living under grace and following Christ.
Grace or Law - Why does the law exist then? Is it is any way applicable for those who are under grace?
Posted : 20 Apr, 2009 02:50 PM
Again, I also cut this one short...but thanks to those who took the time to read it and I look forward to hearing any responses you may wish to offer. God bless.
