Author	Thread: Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?
God_is_my_Father View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 6 Dec, 2015 05:32 PM Did Jesus Christ reject the practices of Moses related to allowing divorce; and say there is only one legitimate reason which allows a person to obtain a divorce, marry another, and not commit adultery? a) yes b) no Matthew 19:3-8 "The Pharisees also came to Him, testing Him, and saying to Him, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for just any reason?" And He answered and said to them, "Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning 'made them male and female,' and said, 'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'? So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate." They said to Him, "Why then did Moses command to give her a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?" He said to them, "Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so." Post Reply
God_is_my_Father View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 11 Dec, 2015 07:58 AM Again, you have dodged the issue raised. "for ALL HAVE SINNED" ALL: not some, not most, every last one. Romans 3:23 Every last human being who reaches the age where they know the difference between right and wrong chooses to sin. Christ, clearly old enough to know the difference, if He is man, and only man, has sinned. When are you going to accept that truth? Post Reply
Hark View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 11 Dec, 2015 08:41 AM If you think that you can continue to sin, and inherit the kingdom of God; I suspect that you will be facing some disappointment. As the sons of God, we are called to perfection; just as our first born brother was perfected. Post Reply
God_is_my_Father View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 11 Dec, 2015 08:57 AM Once again you have refused to accept God's testimony that "ALL HAVE SINNED." Even after you yourself offering Romans 5:17, where is says, that the reason death entered into that world is "for that ALL HAVE SINNED". for that = for the reason that = because "Because ALL HAVE SINNED." This is the irrefutable truth of scripture, that "ALL HAVE SINNED". ALL = everyone, then entirety of mankind. HAVE = already did. SINNED = missed the mark of God's perfection Romans 3:23 "for ALL HAVE SINNED" Post Reply
God_is_my_Father View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 11 Dec, 2015 09:00 AM excuse me, death entered through Adam, but spread through the world because ALL HAVE SINNED. Post Reply
God_is_my_Father View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 11 Dec, 2015 09:01 AM Romans 5:12 Post Reply
God_is_my_Father View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 11 Dec, 2015 09:02 AM Romans 5:12 Post Reply
Hark View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 11 Dec, 2015 09:36 AM Hebrews 5:8-9 8 though He was a Son, yet He LEARNED OBEDIENCE by the things which He suffered. 9 And having been PERFECTED, He BECAME the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him What does this mean to you? Apparently you don't see the difference between repenting (turning away) from sin, and sinning. YHWH's children don't sin. You can go ahead and continue to believe that the messiah was special in every way; and that you can't live up to the example that he set; even though he called you to live up to that example and be like him. Maybe it is you are the one who is special. Maybe you have found another way to enter YHWH's kingdom. Post Reply
View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 11 Dec, 2015 08:26 PM Shared ~ Pejorative words and comments are not appropriate to a discussion of the word. Pejorative ~ expressing contempt or disapproval: "permissiveness" is used almost universally as a pejorative term" synonyms: disparaging � derogatory � denigratory � deprecatory � defamatory � slanderous � libelous � abusive � insulting � slighting � bitchy. I couldn't agree more!!!...So getting back to the OP by GIMF on divorce...I have a serious question...Is this type of behavior which is mostly verbal or written grounds for Biblical divorce ? Post Reply
God_is_my_Father View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 13 Dec, 2015 09:48 AM "But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags; and we do all fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken us away. And there is none that calleth upon thy name, that stirreth up himself to take hold of thee" Isaiah 64:6,7 "for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; as it is written: "There is none righteous, no, not one; there is none who understands; there is none who seeks after God. They have all turned aside; they have altogether become unprofitable; there is none who does good, no, not one. Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips: whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness: their feet are swift to she blood: destruction and misery are in their ways: and the way of peace they have not known: there is no fear of God before their eyes." Romans 3:9-18 "for all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God" Romans 3:23 "All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned, every one, to his own way" Isaiah 53:6 "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us." 1 John 1:8 "If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar, and His word is not in us." 1 John 1:10 It is without question, that, without exception, every man sins. "All HAVE sinned". Every man, that is only man, sins. Otherwise, God is a liar, because He said this repeatedly in His word. Post Reply
God_is_my_Father View Profile History	Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? Posted : 13 Dec, 2015 10:19 AM Jesus Christ is not just a man. He is fully human, and fully God. "Let this mind be in your, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: but made Himself of no reputation, and took upon Him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: and being found in fashion as a man, He humbled Himself, and became obedient unto death, even death of the cross. Wherefore God also hath highly exalted Him, and given Him a name which is above every name: that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in the earth, and things under the earth; and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." Philippians 2:5-11 What mere man existed in the form of God and was not sinning by saying He was equal to God? What mere man existed prior to being formed in the womb by God, and of His own action, took on the form of a man? What mere man is entitled to be worshiped? "Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from Me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it up again." John 10:17-18a A mere man does not have the power to lay his life down and take it up again. Human beings do not have such power or authority. "Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and His redeemer the Lord of Hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God." Who are these persons who the Lord the King of Israel AND His redeemer the Lord of Hosts, yet ONE God? Post Reply

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