Author | Thread: Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19? | |||
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God_is_my_Father
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 6 Dec, 2015 05:32 PMDid Jesus Christ reject the practices of Moses related to allowing divorce; and say there is only one legitimate reason which allows a person to obtain a divorce, marry another, and not commit adultery? |
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Hark
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 9 Dec, 2015 11:26 PMPsalm 2:12 |
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God_is_my_Father
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 10 Dec, 2015 01:25 AMIf there is only One God, and Christ is not God, then how can Christ die and pay for the sin of others? The Lamb of God, (John 1:29) who takes away the sin of the world, must be sinless. Christ cannot pay for the sin of others without being sinless. And if He be sinless, He must be God. |
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God_is_my_Father
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 10 Dec, 2015 02:13 AM"But God commended His love towards us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us." Romans 5:8 |
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God_is_my_Father
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 10 Dec, 2015 02:15 AM"But God commended His love towards us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us." Romans 5:8 |
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Hark
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 10 Dec, 2015 06:15 AMQuote "If there is only One God, and Christ is not God, then how can Christ die and pay for the sin of others? The Lamb of God, (John 1:29) who takes away the sin of the world, must be sinless. Christ cannot pay for the sin of others without being sinless. And if He be sinless, He must be God. " |
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Hark
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 10 Dec, 2015 06:19 AM2 Corinthians 1:3 (English-NIV) |
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God_is_my_Father
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 10 Dec, 2015 09:23 AMYou didn't address the question of Christ being sinless. We know that it says in Romans 3:23, "for all (all of mankind) have sinned, and come short of the glory of God.", and Galatians 3:22 and Isaiah 53:6 But it also clearly states that Christ was without sin. 2 Corinthians 5:20-21 How can that be? How is Christ, being only a man (in your opinion) sinless? |
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Hark
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 10 Dec, 2015 02:46 PMLet's just stick with the facts. |
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God_is_my_Father
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 10 Dec, 2015 04:38 PMIt seems you've totally ignored the reality of Romans 3:23 again. "for ALL HAVE sinned and come short of the glory of God." Any and all mere men are included in this statement which was inspired by God. That means no mere man IS sinless. Yes, man can choose to be in submission to God, and avoid sin, but mere men are ALL born in sin. It is part of what they inherit from Adam, as a son of Adam. |
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Hark
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Did Jesus reject Moses' reasons for divorce in Matthew 19?Posted : 10 Dec, 2015 07:58 PMI see the root of your confusion. It's the pagan doctrine of "original sin." It's a lie. |
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