This is a long article and it comes from Triumph Prophetic Ministries,
Moses, was the one whom God used to lead the Israelites out of
Egyptian bondage. He was a type of Christ, who delivered us from sin. After crossing the Red Sea in awesome glory, the Israelites came to the Arabian desert, and the hot sweltering sun.
They began to murmur and complain, bellyache and grumble. It was not long before men openly
began complaining and plotting rebellion against Moses, and against God (Exo.16:2-8). They
were riled up, and in a flagrantly sinful attitude of mind!
What does God say? Notice!
"And the Lord said unto Moses, How long refuse ye to keep my commandments and my
laws?" (verse 28).
Notice! This was weeks before they came to Mount Sinai! This was almost immediately
after they crossed the Red Sea! Yet, already, plainly, God's laws were in force -- and the
Israelites were found disobedient and rebellious.
Consequently, God did two things. He reiterated the basic spiritual Laws He had given
mankind -- the Ten Commandments, and statutes and judgments (Gen.26:5). Then He added an
entirely NEW Law -- a law involving the Levitical Priesthood, which He brought into service,
and laws concerning rituals, sacrifices, washings, and ordinances involving the Sanctuary or
Temple. This law was added because of DISOBEDIENCE to God�s spiritual Law � it was
added to TEACH them the habit of OBEDIENCE, and LESSONS regarding the enormity of sin,
and its forgiveness.
The entire body of Law was called "the Law of Moses," because God used Moses as His
mediator with Israel. The whole body or corpus of Law came through Moses. However, it was
divided into two distinct parts -- one consisting of statutes and civil laws for the community,
based on the Ten Commandments. The other was the ceremonial laws involving the Levitical
priesthood, sacrifices offerings, and rituals. Thus there were TWO LAWS given at Mount Sinai
-- the Ethical Law, or Moral Law, governing man's relationship with God and his neighbor -- and
the Sacrificial Law!
The sacrificial law consisted of ceremonial washings, various laws of offerings and
sacrifices, and carnal, physical ordinances enjoined upon the people and the Levitical Priesthood.
It was not a spiritual law. It could save no one.
Then why was it given to ancient Israel?
Let the apostle Paul give us the answer! [What purpose did the ritual law serve?] "It was
added because of transgressions, till the seed [Christ] should come to whom the promise was
made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator" (Galatians 3:19).
Did you catch that? The "law " that was added -- the Levitical Priesthood with all the
sacrifices and rituals -- was added -- why? "BECAUSE OF TRANSGRESSIONS"!
For one law to be "added" becuase of "transgressions," then there had to be another Law
which was being transgressed, broken, by the Israelites! What Law?
Remember, God had said, "How long refuse ye to keep my commandments and my
laws?" (Exodus 16.28). They had been breaking God's eternal spiritual law, the Ten
Commandments -- as well as all those Laws which are based on and derived from the Ten
Commandments!
Because Israel had been breaking God's Law, He added another special law -- the laws
involving the whole Levitical Priesthood, sacrifices and offerings! WHY? -- to teach them the
lesson of repentance and of obedience! To teach them to acknowledge their sins, He gave them
certain ceremonial washings, offerings, and commanded sacrifices, and carnal ordinances, as a
foreshadow of things to come. What things? The coming of the true sacrifice for our sins, Christ
Jesus Himself! And the Holy Spirit which cleans us up spiritually within. These duties,
sacrifices, washings, taught them their need for a coming Savior and Gods Holy Spirit.
As Paul tells us in Hebrews, this new law "stood only in meats and drinks [meal and
drink offerings], and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them UNTIL THE
TIME OF REFORMATION" (Hebrews 9:10). These rituals, ceremonies, and sacrifices were "a
FIGURE for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not
make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience" (Heb.9:9).
Paul also wrote of this sacrificial law, "For the law having a shadow of good things to
come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered
year by year make the comers thereunto perfect. For then would they not cease to be offered?
because that the worshipers once purged should have had no more conscience of sins. For in
those sacrifices there is a REMEMBRANCE again made of SINS every year" (Hebrews 10:1-3).
The sacrificial law did not atone for sin -- but it REMINDED THE PEOPLE of their sins,
and their need for proper, true atonement! With the coming of Christ,The true atonement!
Jesus did in fact replace the Old Mosaic Covenant. I see no way to escape this conclusions. Here is a study I did and posted on another thread. Please carefully review it as what jesus said is very often misunderstood.
Mat 5:17 "Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill.
The word "fulfill" in this context, means to "bring to it's proper conclusion". To conclude the matter.
First it is important to notice that Jesus did not say just "the Law". He also mentioned "the Prophets". Why do you think that is? Do you think He was talking exclusively about the Mosaic Law or was there something else intended? If Jesus was coming just to "fulfill The LAW" then no mention of the Prophets would have been necessary.
When we deal with "Prophets" we normally are dealing with "Prophesies". What prophesies?"
Jesus was talking about coming to fulfill all the Prophesies that are contained in the Mosaic Law and the Prophets concerning His First Coming. Is there any other passage of scripture in the New Testament that could help us confirm this? Yes.
After the Resurrection Jesus met up with two Disciples on the road to Emmaus and had an interesting conversation with them. In fact Jesus taught them many things. What things?
Luke 24:25 Then He said to them, "O foolish ones, and slow of heart to believe in all that the prophets have spoken!
26 Ought not the Christ to have suffered these things and to enter into His glory?"
27 And*** beginning at Moses and all the Prophets,*** He expounded to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning Himself. NKJV
Luk 24:44 Then He said to them, "These are the words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, ***that all things must be fulfilled which were written in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms concerning Me."****
45 And He opened their understanding, that they might comprehend the Scriptures.
46 Then He said to them, "Thus it is written, and thus it was necessary for the Christ to suffer and to rise from the dead the third day,
47 and that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name to all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
So we see that Jesus explained to them about all the Prophesies concerning Himself from Moses onward including all the Prophets.
Now let's continue with the rest of this passage and look at other misinterpretations.
18 For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled.
It is very important to get the Grammar correctly here. Notice above that Jesus is NOT saying that the law will not pass away until heaven and earth passes away. He is saying that it will not pass away UNTIL ALL IS FULFILLED. Did Jesus fulfill all the Prophesies concerning His First Coming? Of course He did. Jesus said so Himself. Then since He fulfilled these prophesies then the Law can in fact pass away and did. That is what Jesus is talking about and if it is not then we have a huge contradiction with other NEW Testament passages that clearly shows the Mosaic Law....ALL of it, including the Ten Commandments, was completely replaced, done away with, made obsolete. Before I address the scriptures dealing with the Mosaic Law, let me finish this passage.
Now in verse 19 we have another statement that has many confused. Grammar again is so important.
19 Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of ***these commandments, *** and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. NKJV
The key here is to understand what Jesus is saying when He says ***"these commandments".*** There are two possibilities in the Greek grammar regarding "these commandments".
First off Jesus didn't mention any Commandments yet. We cannot make any arbitrary statement and say He was talking about Moses as He simply did not say which ones. We could include the commandments to Noah as well if we go down that path.
The word "these" is a demonstrative pronoun and can either be an "Antecedent" or "Postcedent".
Jesus is either referring to the Antecedent...previous verses of Mat 5:3 -16 or Postcedent....the following verses after His statement which would be the rest of the entire Sermon on The Mount. Considering the extensiveness of the rest of the Sermon on the Mount compared to just a few verses previously taught, it would be a more weighty conclusion that Jesus was referring to the rest of His sermon. [postcedent.]
Additionally we have a statement from Jesus at the end of this discourse that solidifies my position. Scripture interpreting scripture.
Mat 7:24 "Therefore whoever hears *** these sayings of Mine,*** and does them, I will liken him to a wise man who built his house on the rock:
What sayings? All the teachings He just gave us in Matthew chapters 5,6 & 7. The word "THESE" here is an antecedent, meaning all those teachings He just previously taught.
Now let's deal with a particular Prophesy that Jesus fulfilled and this one is one of the most important I believe. I am going to use the Hebrews quote of Paul because he quotes Jeremiah 31:31 and applies it as a fulfilled prophecy given to Israel and in which we have access to it through Christ.
Heb 8:6 But now He has obtained a more excellent ministry, inasmuch as He is also Mediator of a better covenant, which was established on better promises.
7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then no place would have been sought for a second.
8 Because finding fault with them, He says: "BEHOLD, THE DAYS ARE COMING, SAYS THE LORD, WHEN I WILL MAKE A NEW COVENANT WITH THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL AND WITH THE HOUSE OF JUDAH�
*** 9 NOT ACCORDING TO THE COVENANT THAT I MADE ***
WITH THEIR FATHERS IN THE DAY WHEN I TOOK THEM BY THE HAND TO LEAD THEM OUT OF THE LAND OF EGYPT; BECAUSE THEY DID NOT CONTINUE IN MY COVENANT, AND I DISREGARDED THEM, SAYS THE LORD.
10 FOR THIS IS THE COVENANT THAT I WILL MAKE WITH THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL AFTER THOSE DAYS, SAYS THE LORD: I WILL PUT MY LAWS IN THEIR MIND AND WRITE THEM ON THEIR HEARTS; AND I WILL BE THEIR GOD, AND THEY SHALL BE MY PEOPLE.
11 NONE OF THEM SHALL TEACH HIS NEIGHBOR, AND NONE HIS BROTHER, SAYING, 'KNOW THE LORD,' FOR ALL SHALL KNOW ME, FROM THE LEAST OF THEM TO THE GREATEST OF THEM.
12 FOR I WILL BE MERCIFUL TO THEIR UNRIGHTEOUSNESS, AND THEIR SINS AND THEIR LAWLESS DEEDS I WILL REMEMBER NO MORE."
Now notice Paul's next statement. This is KEY! Don't miss it.
13 In that He says, "A NEW COVENANT," He has made the first OBSOLETE. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to VANISH AWAY.
Paul clearly said that God has made (past tense) the OLD Covenant OBSOLETE and was ready to vanish away. Paul is speaking about the Mosaic Law...ALL of it, not just part of it. That is all 613 Commandments including the original Ten. Notice that the Prophesy says clearly that the NEW Covenant was NOT going to be based upon anything of the OLD Covenant but be something entirely different. If this is not true then this is one reason why the statement of Jesus in Matthew 5 would be a direct contradiction to Hebrews 8 above as well as others.
The question we must ask is this. Are the Ten Commandments separate from the Mosaic Law or are they it's centerpiece?
Exod 34:28
28 And he was there with the LORD forty days and forty nights; he did neither eat bread, nor drink water. And he wrote upon the tables the words of the covenant, the ten commandments.
(KJV)
Deut 4:13
13 And he declared unto you his covenant, which he commanded you to perform, even ten commandments; and he wrote them upon two tables of stone.
(KJV)
There is no question and it is irrefutable that the Ten Commandments are the Mosaic Covenant. Since that is clearly the fact of scriptures and the scriptures state with absolute certainty that they were replaced, done away with, made obsolete, then there is no reason for them to continue. Now don't make the mistake many on this board have made and assume that God's Moral PRINCIPLES have been done away with as Christ re-instituted God's Moral Principles in the NEW Covenant beginning at the Sermon on the Mount.
Heb 10:8-10
8 Above when he said, "Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law";
9 Then said he, "Lo, I come to do thy will, O God.
***" HE TAKETH AWAY THE FIRST THAT HE MAY ESTABLISH THE SECOND.*** [WHAT? He took away the FIRST? What is the First? The Mosaic Covenant/ The Law!]
10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. (KJV)
Eph 2:14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
*** 15 Having ABOLISHED ***in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
Jesus fulfilled the "prophesies" concerning His First Coming and was not talking about the Mosaic law in and of itself in Matt 5:17. If He was then we have a clear contradiction in scriptures listed above as they demonstrate that the Mosaic Law was indeed completely replaced or else God lied to us in Jeremiah 31:31. The only way to reconcile this is to have the proper interpretation of all these passages by maintaining the principles of Hermeneutics, which I believe I have done.
So Walter, it sounds like what you are saying is that we no longer have to obey any of the commandments in the OT. So why not throw it away since it's done away with and just obey the commandments in the New Testament. Why does the Church continue to preach and teach form the OT if it is no longer applicable to us? Why do Christians get so bent out of shape when the Ten Commandments are taken out of public buildings. What do we care, they are for the Jews right?
Even in the OT, Gentiles were saved by grace and they do follow the law and become Jews. Therefore in God's eye there is no difference, He is the God of Jews and Gentiles and the Law is given to everyone. Here are some evidences:
Gentiles becoming Jews:
"16And it shall come to pass, if they will diligently learn the ways of my people, to swear by my name, The LORD liveth; as they taught my people to swear by Baal; then shall they be built in the midst of my people." Jer. 12
Salvation by grace in OT:
The citizens of Nineveh responded to the Gospel when Jonah preached to them and they were saved. Matthew 12:41
Adam and Eve were saved by grace because they should have died the day they eat the fruit.
The whole law points to grace, grace leads to salvation, salvation leads to urge to observe of law
Law is given to everyone in OT:
"15 The community is to have the same rules for you and for the alien living among you; this is a lasting ordinance for the generations to come. You and the alien shall be the same before the LORD : 16 The same laws and regulations will apply both to you and to the alien living among you.' "Numbers 15:15-16
"22Ye shall have one manner of law, as well for the stranger, as for one of your own country: for I am the LORD your God." Leviticus 24
Law is given to everyone in NT:
"4Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." 1 John 3. Unless you are saying that John make a mistake and he should have write "Isrealites or Jews had committeth sin transgressth also the law".
"12As many as desire to make a fair shew in the flesh, they constrain you to be circumcised; only lest they should suffer persecution for the cross of Christ. 13For neither they themselves who are circumcised keep the law; but desire to have you circumcised, that they may glory in your flesh.
14But God forbid that I should glory, save in the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom the world is crucified unto me, and I unto the world. 15For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creature." Galatians 6. Again urge to follow the law.
So Walter, it sounds like what you are saying is that we no longer have to obey any of the commandments in the OT. So why not throw it away since it's done away with and just obey the commandments in the New Testament. Why does the Church continue to preach and teach form the OT if it is no longer applicable to us? Why do Christians get so bent out of shape when the Ten Commandments are taken out of public buildings. What do we care, they are for the Jews right? "
WALTER: In essence that is true because the OT Laws were given to JEWS, not Gentiles and that is also why the council in Jerusalem made that same conclusion. We are under "The LAW of Christ", not the Mosaic Covenant. When you examine the NEW Covenant you will see that Christ re-instituted God's "MORAL PRINCIPLES" but not "The Mosaic Law".
As far as why Christians get upset about the Government taking the "Ten Commandments" from public places? I would say that it is due to the Government attacking religious liberty which is forbidden int he Bill of Rights. Many Christians are confused concerning this discussion we are having on this board.
How do you explain these scriptures below?
After quoting Jer 31:31 Paul made a very pointed comment concerning the Mosaic Covenant/The Law and the New Covenant. He clearly said that the Mosaic Covenant was made OBSOLETE and was ready to VANISH AWAY. There is no escaping this language.
13 In that He says, "A NEW COVENANT," He has made the first OBSOLETE. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to VANISH AWAY.
Heb 10:8-10
8 Above when he said, "Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by THE LAW";
9 Then said he, "Lo, I come to do thy will, O God." HE TAKETH AWAY THE FIRST, THAT he may establish the second.
10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. (KJV)
Look at this clear language. " HE TAKETH AWAY THE FIRST, THAT he may establish the second.
The FIRST what? The Mosaic Covenant/The Law". He took it away. Why? So He could establish THE SECOND. What is the Second? The New Covenant.
Eph 2:14 For He is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
15 Having ABOLISHED in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
"Having ABOLISHED in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances"
Christ abolished "THE LAW"/ Mosaic Covenant. There is no escaping this language. Paul simply wrote what the Holy Spirit of God told him to write. Is Paul wrong?
"15 The community is to have the same rules for you and for the alien living among you; this is a lasting ordinance for the generations to come. You and the alien shall be the same before the LORD : 16 The same laws and regulations will apply both to you and to the alien living among you.' "Numbers 15:15-16
"22Ye shall have one manner of law, as well for the stranger, as for one of your own country: for I am the LORD your God." Leviticus 24
WALTER: These were Gentiles that made a choice to live among the Jews and follow the God of Abraham. You cannot take this verse and apply it to the rest of the world like you are attempting to do.
So Daniel, can I get an direct answer to a direct question or are you going to continue to play games?
Are you a Jew or a Gentile?
If you are going to continue to play games and say that you are neither and that you are a "New Creation", then if we stay within that context of scripture , then I would have to conclude that you also are neither a male or a female. :ROFL:
If indeed I have taken Numbers and Leviticus out of context, why John said
"4Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." 1 John 3. I have been putting up this verse to you for a long time.
2. I am not avoiding the question on Gentiles and Jews. Well the answer of a new creation is based on Bible, while I am not sure where in the Bible you can find neither male nor female answer. I regard the Bible is the ultimate truth, if it told us that we are the same (the question of Jews and Gentiles), then we should not differentiate. If it told us me must differentiate (such as in term of sex) , we must differentiate.
You: Yes the New Covenant was given to Israel, but the mystery Paul revealed was that this New Covenant was extended to the Gentiles and even in the Old Testament there are scriptures showing this would occur.
Me: Half correct. We are included in the new covenant if we have laws in our mind ( this is clearly stated in Hebrews) . If we have the Law, then we obey the law. Therefore it is the same in OT. "16And it shall come to pass, if they will diligently learn the ways of my people, to swear by my name, The LORD liveth; as they taught my people to swear by Baal; then shall they be built in the midst of my people." Jer. 12, clearly stated, you become "my people", once you obey the Law. There is no difference in OT and NT teachings, they are essentially the same. Mosaic covenant is the covenant of grace, so is New covenant.
