Author	Thread: Does a person need to believe in the made up word ' trinity ' to be saved.
Quiznos View Profile History	Does a person need to believe in the made up word ' trinity ' to be saved. Posted : 30 Mar, 2020 05:01 PM Absolutely not. There is not one scripture which states that salvation is based upon the word ' trinity ' Messiah says,UNLESS you believe that i am,you will die in your sins. Acts 4 verses 10- 12 10 let it be known to all of you and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ the Nazarene, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead—by this name this man stands here before you in good health. 11 “He is the STONE WHICH WAS REJECTED by you, THE BUILDERS, but WHICH BECAME THE CHIEF CORNER stone. 12 “And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must be saved.” Post Reply
Teddyhug^ View Profile History	Does a person need to believe in the made up word ' trinity ' to be saved. Posted : 4 Apr, 2020 11:22 PM THE AMAZING DREADED FORUMVIRUS RICHARD IS MANY TIMES MENTIONED IN EVERY THREAD THAT WILL TAKE PLACE JUST BEFORE THE GREAT JUDGMENT DAY FOR HIS FALSE TEACHINGS**?? It is obvious that this is a **FORUMWIDE** plague and is a message **FROM SATAN**!! Another amazing reason that the Great judgment day may be very close is that **POPE RICHARD COMPLETELY QUALIFIES TO BE THE PRESENT FALSE PROPHET OF **7744** Post Reply
View Profile History	Does a person need to believe in the made up word ' trinity ' to be saved. Posted : 24 Apr, 2020 03:54 AM Ten Questions for Modern Trinitarians: The following questions are designed to challenge some of the axioms held by modern Trinitarians. I. If the “one God” consists of a Trinity of three co-eternal and co-equal Persons: A. Why did Jesus say the Father is greater than Himself? (Jn. 14:28) B. Why did Jesus call the Father “the only true God?” (Jn. 17:4) C. How can the Father be Jesus’ own “God?”(Matt. 27:46; Jn. 20:17; Rom. 15:6; 2 Cor. 1:3; 2 Cor. 11:31; Eph. 1:3,17; Col. 1:3; 1 Pet. 1:3; Rev. 1:5-6; Rev. 3:12) D. Why did Paul identify the “one God” as exclusively the Father, using a lesser title (Master/Lord) for Jesus Christ? (1 Cor. 8:6) E. Why does the invisible Father alone have immortality, not the Son or Spirit? (1 Tim. 6:16) II. If the Third Person of the Trinity is the one who came upon the Virgin Mary causing her to conceive, why did Jesus always refer to the “First Person” as His “Father” and not the “Third Person?” (Luke 1:35) III. If “no one knows the Son except the Father,” and “no one knows the Father except the Son,” why is the Holy Spirit ignorant of both Father and Son? (Matt. 11:27) IV. Why are the terms “Spirit of God” and the “Spirit of Christ/Jesus” used interchangeably? (Acts 16:6-7; Rom. 8:9; 1 Pet. 1:11) V. Why is the source of “grace and peace” only from the Father and the Son, never from a Third Person? (Rom. 1:7; 1 Cor. 1:3; 2 Cor. 1:2; Gal. 1:3; Eph. 1:2; Phil. 1:2; Col. 1:2; 1 Thess. 1:1; 2 Thess. 1:2; 1 Tim. 1:2; 2 Tim. 1:2; Titus 1:4; Phlm. 1:3; 2 Jn. 1:3) VI. Why are there “seven Spirits of God” in Revelation? (Rev. 1:4; Rev. 3:1; Rev. 4:5; Rev. 5:6) VII. When Jesus promised to send “the Spirit of Truth” after His ascension, if this was a “Third Person,” why did He immediately say that He would not leave them orphans, but that He and the Father would be coming to them? (Jn. 14:15-18,21-23) VIII. Since “Father” and “Son” are terms used to define a familial relationship in both the OT & NT, what is the familial relationship between the first and third Persons, and between the second and third Persons of the Trinity? IX. If Jesus as Man was inherently “God” (Deity/Divinity) and thus possessed all divine qualities and powers: A. How can Scripture claim that “in all things He had to be made like His brethren?” (Heb 2:17) B. How could an immortal God succumb to death? (Heb. 2:9) C. How could He be genuinely “tempted as we are?” (Heb. 4:15). D. Why did Jesus say that He was unable to do even “one thing” from Himself, but that the Father was doing all of the miracles through Him? (John 5:19,30; John 14:10) E. Why didn’t Nicodemus conclude that Jesus was “God” by His miracles, but instead concluded that God was “with Him?” (John 3:1-2) F. Why did the Apostles claim that God performed all of Jesus’ miracles through Him? (Acts 2:22; Acts 10:38) G. Why did Jesus say that His Apostles would do the same works and even greater works once the “Spirit of Truth” came upon them? Does this mean they also became “God”? (Jn. 14:12) X. If Paul’s statement that “all the fullness of the Godhead” dwelled in Christ (Col. 1:19 & 2:9) means that Jesus as Man was Himself inherently and fully “God,” then why did John state that the Apostles had received some “of His fullness” (John 1:16), and Paul prayed that the Ephesians would also be “filled with all the fullness of God?” (Eph. 3:19) Did the Apostles and the Ephesians become divine beings? Post Reply

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